1. A 54-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to the left arm. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Stable angina B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Pericarditis D. Aortic dissection Answer: B. Acute myocardial infarction Rationale: The presentation is indicative of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), characterized by sudden chest pain and ST-segment elevation on ECG, which is not seen in the other options listed. 2. A patient is diagnosed with heart failure. Which pathophysiological mechanism is most likely responsible for edema formation in this condition? A. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure B. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure C. Increased capillary permeability D. Obstruction of lymph

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jordancarter 6 months ago

This study guide is clear, well-organized, and covers all the essential topics. The explanations are concise, making complex concepts easier to understand. It could benefit from more practice questions, but overall, it's a great resource for efficient studying. Highly recommend!

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