The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy? a. Painless vaginal bleeding b. Abdominal cramping c. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant d. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant - Answer D is correct. The signs of an ectopic pregnancy are vague until the fallopian tube ruptures. The client will complain of sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant that radiates down the leg or up into the chest. Painless vaginal bleeding is a sign of placenta previa, abdominal cramping is a sign of labor, and throbbing pain in the upper quadrant is not a sign of an ectopic pregnancy, making answers A, B, and C incorrect. A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when: a. Her contractions are 2 minutes apart. b. She has back pain and a bloody discharge. c. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination. d. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart. - Answer D is correct. The client should be advised to come to the labor and delivery unit when the contractions are every 5 minutes and consistent. She should also be told to report to the hospital if she experiences rupture of membranes or extreme bleeding. She should not wait until the contractions are every 2 minutes or until she has bloody discharge, so answers A and B are incorrect. Answer C is a vague answer and can be related to a urinary tract infection Which of the following instructions should be included in the nurse's teaching regarding oral contraceptives? a. Weight gain should be reported to the physician. b. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking antibiotics. c. If the client misses one or more pills, two pills should be taken per day for 1 week. d. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the physician. - Answer B is correct. When the client is taking oral contraceptives and begins antibiotics, another method of birth control should be used. Antibiotics decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Approximately 5-10 pounds of weight gain is not unusual, so answer A is incorrect. If the client misses a birth control pill, she should be instructed to take the pill as soon as she remembers the pill. Answer C is incorrect. If she misses two, she should take two; if she misses more than two, she should take the missed pills but use another method of birth control for the remainder of the cycle. Answer D is incorrect because changes in menstrual flow are expected in clients using oral contraceptives. Often these clients have lighter menses. A nursing instructor is conducting lecture and is reviewing the functions of the female reproductive system. She asks Mark to describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH). Mark accurately responds by stating that: a. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland. b. FSH and LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary c. FSH and LH are secreted by the adrenal glands d. FSH and LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy. - a. FSH and LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland. FSH and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate follicular growth and development, growth of the graafian follicle, and production of progesterone. A woman who's 36 weeks pregnant comes into the labor & delivery unit with mild contracts. Which of the following complications should the nurse watch out for when the client informs her that she has placenta prevue? a. sudden rupture of membranes b. vaginal bleeding c. emesis d. fever - b. vaginal bleeding contractions may disrupt the microvascular network in the placenta of a client with placenta prevue and result in bleeding. If the separation of the placenta occurs at the margin of the placenta, the blood will escape vaginally. Sudden rupture of the membranes isn't related to placenta prevue. Fever would indicate an infectious process, and emesis isn't related to placenta previa A 21y.o. client has been diagnosed with hydatidiform mole. Which of the following factors is considered a risk factor for developing hydatidiform mole? 1. age in 20s or 30s 2. high in SES 3. Primigravida 4. prior molar gestation - 4. previous molar gestation increases risk for developing subsequent molar gestation by 4- 5 times. Adolescents and women ages 40+ are at increased risk for molar pregs. MULTIGRAVIDAS, esp women with prior preg loss, and women with LOWER SES are at increased risk for this problem

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jordancarter 6 months ago

This study guide is clear, well-organized, and covers all the essential topics. The explanations are concise, making complex concepts easier to understand. It could benefit from more practice questions, but overall, it's a great resource for efficient studying. Highly recommend!
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